I never cease to be amazed by God.
He works in such mysterious and yet simple, “everyday” ways. I was just talking to my younger teen “son” about our Sunday goals before I release him to his computer. I started to hear a thought in my head (probably based on one of his simple yet profound thoughts) about the words “sin”, “son” and “sun”.
I knew I need to go look deeper to see what was going on. I have trained myself to pay very close attention to all my thoughts. I believe they are very important if we want to truly hear from God.
I know that the “sun” shines on the “earth” in our physical reality or our natural body. But, in the Bible God sometimes uses “son” and “sun” interchangeably. Also, he sometimes uses the word “earth” interchangeably with “body”. (Our “body” is even made of the “dust of the earth”) I believe this is NOT a coincidence.
Back to the thought that was appearing. Here are the 3 words. I started to wonder the “difference” between them, so I highlighted the one letter that was different.
What is the difference?
I O U
What is an “I O U”?
A debt that you owe someone, right?
Well, then this verse flashed into my mind.
He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him 2 Corinthians 5:21 NASB
The first thought that I hear is “might” become?
Who’s job is it to make us “become” the righteousness of God in him? Ours or God’s?
If it is ours then I would accept the word “might” – as if there is the slightest chance it may not happen. But if it is God’s job to make it happen, that is totally different, isn’t it? We have to ask ourselves if the word “might” exists in God’s vocabulary?
The second thought that comes to mind is this. I believe that this verse is often overlooked because we don’t understand it. How could God make “him” (Jesus, I assume) to BE sin? It’s beyond my comprehension. I don’t know how, but that is what it says. We are also told in John 1:49, 1 John 4:15 that he is the sOn of God which most will acknowledge.
How could he be “sIn” though?
Let’s look into the original Greek word translated as “we might become” in 1 Corinthians 5:21.
It is this Greek Word:
It is Strong’s #1096 at this link. You can see it’s definition is clearly stated as: “to come into being, to happen, to become“. You can even see the other verses where that word appears in. Is there any “might” or “may” present? No, there is not. These things definitely occur.
Thus, after studying this word closely and it’s very close equivalents, I have concluded that the following translation is more accurate.
For he who had not known sin made himself to become sin in your place, that we would become the righteousness of God in him 2 Corinthians 5:21 (2 Corinthians 5 in Aramaic Bible in Plain English)
This confirms what my heart told me about “might” become.
The word actually means would become. “Might” become means we don’t have much faith in God’s ability to do so, doesn’t it? After all, this is God’s work not ours, right? Ephesians 2:10, Isaiah 29:23, 2 Tim 2:21
Let’s bring the two ideas together and introduce a third one.
Now, go back to our comparison of “sIn” to “sOn” to “sUn” the difference being I O U and hold that in mind with the truth that God “made himself to become sin”.
With me so far?
After pondering these things a bit, a third WORD came to my mind that I recalled being shown previously.
Look at this verse, as we may have stumbled upon when and HOW this occurred…
How could “he make himself become sin”?
Then the Lord God said to the woman, “What is this you have done?” And the woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.” Genesis 3:13
Here is the Hebrew word translated as “deceived” according to Biblehub.com from the Strong’s Concordance. It is Strong’s #5377 called “nasha”.
It means “to lend on interest, be a creditor“. (Here is a link to the word: http://biblehub.com/hebrew/5377.htm)
Now, this may sound absurd, but do you think there may be a connection here?
Doesn’t “nasha” mean the same as I O U?
Could Jesus have appeared first as “the woman”? Have you studied the original word for “the woman” in Hebrew from Genesis 3? It is the word “ishshah” and is Strong’s #802 It is nearly identical to the word that means “fire offering” which is Strong’s #801. Could this be when part of the true body of Jesus was given as a fire offering?
Pretty amazing, huh?
Spend some time thinking about it and see if anything “clicks”. I am convinced that God will show us if we are willing to sit and listen with a totally open heart and mind. He will show us great and mighty things that we have never seen before.
I believe God is MORE real than we realize or have been taught. He is even present in our “sin” and even beyond that!
Here is a final thought on my heart I will leave you with.
Has this verse ever amazed and astounded you?
a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all Col 3:11
This is Paul speaking of the “renewal of all things” that Jesus tells us about in “the Revelation” or the unveiling of himself in Rev 21:5.
Ponder those little, tiny yet extremely powerful words at the end. We so often skip them.
Christ IS all and IN all.
Wow… I can’t fully conceive of the true meaning of that. But it makes me ask this question.
Could Christ have made HIMSELF all 3?
The “I” (me), the “O” (debt) and the “u” (you)?
Is he really “all and in all” like Col 3:11 says?
That is what my heart is screaming at me wanting me to “shout from the rooftops”! Christ is in ALL people and ALL things! He is the “seed of the woman” but he is also the woman too. Plus MUCH MUCH more.
God bless and may you hear the word of the Lord in your thoughts today.